ATI-P ATI Pharmacology - Set 5 - Part 3

Correct Answer: It may turn your urine orange-red.

Phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic, an azo dye that relieves burning and urgency and turns the urine orange-red. The nurse should teach the client that this color change is expected and that the urine can stain clothing. Option a is incorrect because phenazopyridine is not an antibiotic and does not cure infection; it only relieves urinary symptoms. The nurse should clarify that a separate antibacterial drug treats the infection while this medication eases discomfort and discolors the urine. Option b is incorrect because phenazopyridine is taken with or after meals to reduce stomach upset, not on an empty stomach. The key teaching point is the harmless orange-red urine, along with the fact that it relieves symptoms rather than treating the infection. Option d is incorrect because grapefruit is not part of the instructions for phenazopyridine. The important information is that the medication relieves urinary pain and produces an orange-red discoloration of the urine that may stain c

Correct Answer: Take pyridoxine to protect your nerves.

Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy by depleting pyridoxine. The nurse should teach the client to take a pyridoxine supplement as prescribed to prevent the numbness, tingling, and burning associated with this nerve effect. Option b is incorrect because iron does not prevent the nerve damage caused by isoniazid. The supplement that protects against peripheral neuropathy is pyridoxine, because the drug interferes with that vitamin, not with iron stores or red blood cell production. Option c is incorrect because vitamin C is not used to counter isoniazid's adverse effects. The appropriate supplement is pyridoxine, which prevents the peripheral neuropathy that develops when isoniazid depletes the body's stores of this vitamin. Option d is incorrect because avoiding all supplements would remove the protective pyridoxine the client specifically needs. Isoniazid therapy calls for pyridoxine supplementation to guard against peripheral neuropathy rather than withholding suppleme

Correct Answer: Yellowing of the skin and eyes

Isoniazid can cause hepatotoxicity, and yellowing of the skin and eyes indicates jaundice from liver injury. The nurse should report this finding, monitor liver function tests, and advise the client to avoid alcohol during therapy. Option a is incorrect because orange-tinted sweat is linked to rifampin, not isoniazid, and is harmless. The serious finding the nurse reports with isoniazid is jaundice, which reflects liver damage rather than the expected coloring seen with another tuberculosis drug. Option b is incorrect because a metallic taste is associated with other medications and is not a marker of liver toxicity. The hepatotoxic warning with isoniazid is jaundice, so the nurse focuses on yellowing of the skin and eyes rather than taste changes. Option d is incorrect because slight toe tingling suggests peripheral neuropathy, a separate isoniazid effect prevented with pyridoxine. The finding pointing to hepatotoxicity is jaundice, which signals liver injury and requires reporting an

Correct Answer: Your body fluids may turn orange.

Rifampin causes a harmless orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine, sweat, saliva, and tears. The nurse should teach the client that this effect is expected and can also stain soft contact lenses. Option a is incorrect because rifampin does not cause the fingernails to fall off. The expected and benign effect the nurse explains is the orange coloring of body fluids, which clients should anticipate rather than mistake for harm. Option c is incorrect because fading hearing is not an expected effect of rifampin, though it can occur with other antibiotics. The harmless change associated with rifampin is the orange discoloration of urine, sweat, tears, and saliva. Option d is incorrect because a greatly increased appetite is not an effect of rifampin; loss of appetite could instead signal liver problems. The expected harmless effect to teach about is the orange coloring of the client's body fluids.

Correct Answer: Use a nonhormonal method of birth control.

Rifampin accelerates the metabolism of oral contraceptives, reducing their effectiveness. The nurse should instruct the client to use a nonhormonal method, such as a barrier method, to prevent pregnancy during therapy. Option a is incorrect because simply changing the timing does not overcome rifampin's effect of speeding contraceptive metabolism. The reliable approach is adding a nonhormonal method, because the drug reduces effectiveness of the hormonal contraceptive regardless of dosing time. Option b is incorrect because doubling the contraceptive dose is unsafe and not the recommended solution. Because rifampin lowers hormonal contraceptive effectiveness, the client should use a nonhormonal backup method rather than altering the hormone dose independently. Option d is incorrect because abruptly stopping the contraceptive without an alternative leaves the client unprotected against pregnancy. The correct teaching is to add a nonhormonal method while on rifampin, since the drug

Correct Answer: Avoid all alcohol while taking this drug.

Metronidazole combined with alcohol causes a disulfiram-like reaction with flushing, vomiting, and rapid heartbeat. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid all alcohol during therapy and for a period after completing the medication. Option a is incorrect because even a small amount of beer can provoke a disulfiram-like reaction with metronidazole. The instruction must be complete avoidance of alcohol, because any quantity can cause flushing, nausea, and other unpleasant effects. Option b is incorrect because alcohol does not relieve side effects and instead triggers a harmful interaction with metronidazole. The correct teaching is total avoidance of alcohol, since combining the two leads to a distressing disulfiram-like response. Option c is incorrect because pairing alcohol with meals does not prevent the disulfiram-like reaction caused by metronidazole. The client must avoid alcohol entirely during and shortly after therapy to prevent flushing, vomiting, and tachycardia.

Correct Answer: My urine may darken while taking this.

Metronidazole can cause a harmless darkening of the urine, so the client's statement reflects accurate understanding. The nurse should confirm this expected change and reinforce taking the drug with meals and avoiding alcohol. Option a is incorrect because metronidazole is taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset, not on an empty stomach. This statement shows a misunderstanding, since proper teaching pairs the drug with food and notes the harmless darkening of urine. Option c is incorrect because a metallic or bitter taste is a known, harmless effect of metronidazole and not a reason to stop. The client correctly understands therapy by recognizing the expected urine darkening rather than discontinuing for an altered taste. Option d is incorrect because drinking wine even after the first dose can trigger a disulfiram-like reaction. This statement indicates a need for further teaching, whereas understanding is shown by acknowledging the harmless darkening of the urine.

Correct Answer: Fever and chills

Amphotericin B commonly causes infusion reactions that include fever, chills, and rigors within hours of starting. The nurse should monitor for these effects and expect premedication with agents such as diphenhydramine and acetaminophen to reduce them. Option a is incorrect because a craving for sweets is unrelated to amphotericin B infusion reactions. The nurse instead watches for fever, chills, and rigors, which are the hallmark systemic responses that occur soon after the infusion begins. Option b is incorrect because improved muscle strength is not an infusion reaction and would not be caused by this drug. Amphotericin B typically produces fever, chills, and shaking, so the nurse monitors for these uncomfortable systemic effects during administration. Option d is incorrect because a slowed breathing rate is not characteristic of amphotericin B infusion reactions. The expected findings are fever, chills, and rigors, prompting the nurse to monitor closely and anticipate premedication

Correct Answer: A low potassium level

Amphotericin B causes potassium wasting, so a low potassium level is a key imbalance to monitor. The nurse should check potassium regularly and anticipate supplementation, since hypokalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac effects. Option a is incorrect because a high sodium level is not the characteristic disturbance with amphotericin B. The electrolyte the nurse watches most closely is potassium, because the drug promotes its loss and can produce hypokalemia during therapy. Option b is incorrect because a high calcium level is not the typical concern with this antifungal. Amphotericin B specifically depletes potassium, so the nurse monitors for a low potassium level rather than for elevated calcium. Option c is incorrect because a low chloride level is not the primary electrolyte issue caused by amphotericin B. The drug's well-known effect is potassium wasting, making hypokalemia the imbalance the nurse should monitor for and treat.

Correct Answer: Skipping doses can cause drug resistance.

Skipping or reducing antiretroviral doses promotes medication resistance and possible treatment failure. The nurse should teach the client that strict adherence is essential to keep the virus controlled and maintain the effectiveness of therapy. Option a is incorrect because antiretroviral medications do not cure HIV; they suppress the virus and improve immune function. The correct teaching emphasizes adherence to prevent resistance, since stopping or missing doses allows the virus to escape control. Option c is incorrect because feeling well does not mean the virus is gone, and stopping therapy invites resistance and relapse. The client must continue the regimen exactly as prescribed, because missed doses lead to medication resistance and treatment failure. Option d is incorrect because missing doses actually increases vulnerability to complications rather than preventing secondary infections. Consistent adherence keeps the virus suppressed and the immune system stronger, whereas skip