NHA CPT NHA Certified Phlebotomy Technician - Set 1 - Part 3

Correct Answer: An N95 respirator or higher

airborne precautions require an N95 filtering facepiece respirator or higher protection, with prior fit testing and a user seal check before entry. Tuberculosis travels in droplet nuclei small enough to bypass surgical mask edges easily. Option a is incorrect because a surgical mask filters large droplets but does not seal to the face and does not protect against airborne particles. Using a surgical mask for tuberculosis exposure leaves gaps that aerosolized droplet nuclei can bypass during normal breathing. Option b is incorrect because a closed door reduces room-to-corridor migration but does nothing to protect a worker who has entered the contaminated air. Personal respiratory protection is required during entry, not replaced by engineering controls like negative pressure ventilation alone. Option c is incorrect because cloth face coverings have no regulatory standing for tuberculosis exposure and offer no certified filtration claim. Such coverings are designed for source control in

Correct Answer: Soap and water for fifteen seconds

C. difficile spores resist alcohol, so soap and water hand washing is required after caring for an affected patient. Mechanical removal by friction and rinsing is the only reliable approach for sporulated organisms. Option b is incorrect because alcohol-based hand rub is inactive against C. difficile spores, since alcohol cannot break down the protective spore coat. Using only hand rub leaves spores on the skin and creates a route for environmental contamination during subsequent contacts. Option c is incorrect because treating the methods as equivalent ignores the spore biology that drives CDC's specific recommendation. Soap and water is required after contact with this organism, while alcohol rub remains acceptable only for routine encounters without spore-forming organisms. Option d is incorrect because skipping hand hygiene after a contact-precaution patient is never acceptable and would directly violate standard precautions. C. difficile spread from healthcare workers is a re

Correct Answer: Gown, mask, goggles, gloves

the CDC donning sequence places gown first, mask or respirator second, goggles or face shield third, and gloves last, with the cuff extending over the gown sleeve. The order ensures full coverage before patient contact begins. Option a is incorrect because donning gloves first traps the gown sleeve under the cuff and can compromise barrier integrity when the gown is later applied. The recommended order keeps gloves last so they overlap and seal the gown sleeve at the wrist. Option c is incorrect because starting with mask and goggles before the gown forces awkward gown application around face protection already in place. The recommended order applies the gown first while the worker can still freely manipulate clothing. Option d is incorrect because goggles first creates similar problems and leads to gown application around equipment already on the face. The standard order keeps face protection placement after the gown so each step adds without disturbing previously donned items.

Correct Answer: Gloves, goggles, gown, mask

the CDC doffing order removes gloves first as the most contaminated item, then goggles or face shield by the strap, gown rolled inside out, and mask or respirator last by the straps. Hand hygiene follows after final removal. Option a is incorrect because removing gown before gloves drags contaminated glove surfaces against the worker's clothing or skin. The doffing principle removes the heaviest contamination first, and gloves carry the most exposure after patient contact during the encounter occurs. Option b is incorrect because removing mask first while gloves are still on transfers contamination from the glove to the face during handling. The standard sequence keeps the mask last so gloved hands never touch the face protection during early removal steps. Option d is incorrect because goggles first followed by gloves repeats the same self-contamination problem, since gloved hands touch the goggles strap. The recommended outside-in order strips gloves before any item near the fac

Correct Answer: A standard surgical mask

a standard surgical mask satisfies droplet precaution requirements for influenza, pertussis, and similar pathogens. The mask blocks larger respiratory droplets that fall to surfaces within a few feet, which is the dominant transmission route for these agents. Option a is incorrect because an N95 respirator is reserved for airborne precautions involving droplet nuclei smaller than five micrometers. Using N95 routinely for droplet pathogens overconsumes scarce respirator supply without adding benefit beyond what a surgical mask already provides reliably. Option b is incorrect because a cloth covering offers no certified filtration claim and is not approved for droplet precautions. Healthcare encounters require regulated face protection, and cloth coverings lack the minimum filtration performance required for occupational respiratory droplet protection in clinics. Option c is incorrect because a splash visor protects against fluid splatter to the face but does not filter inhaled droplets.

Correct Answer: Stop the draw and recline legs elevated

the recommended response is to stop the draw, safely remove the needle, recline the chair fully, and elevate the legs to support venous return. A cool damp cloth and observation for fifteen minutes complete the recovery period afterward. Option b is incorrect because continuing the draw quickly risks a complete syncopal event with possible fall and injury. Patient safety requires stopping the procedure to prevent loss of consciousness, since needle presence during a fall could cause additional puncture trauma. Option c is incorrect because walking the patient to fresh air is unsafe during prodromal syncope, since loss of consciousness during ambulation may produce a fall. Reclining and elevating legs is the established response, with fresh air not part of any current guideline. Option d is incorrect because offering hot coffee adds a hot liquid risk during impending loss of consciousness and provides no physiologic benefit. The proper management is positional and supportive, with oral

Correct Answer: One hundred to one twenty per minute

the AHA target runs one hundred to one hundred twenty compressions per minute, with a depth of two to two point four inches and full chest recoil between compressions. Interruptions must be minimized to maximize perfusion. Option a is incorrect because sixty to eighty per minute is too slow for effective coronary perfusion during cardiac arrest. Older guidelines once suggested similar rates, but current science supports faster compressions to maintain adequate forward flow during the arrest period. Option b is incorrect because eighty to one hundred per minute also falls below the modern target band. Compression speed below one hundred reduces cardiac output during resuscitation, and the AHA has clearly raised the floor in recent guideline updates. Option d is incorrect because one hundred forty to one hundred sixty per minute is too fast and shortens diastole, the phase during which ventricles refill. Excessive speed drops effective stroke volume, undermining the perfusion the rescuer

Correct Answer: Apply fifteen-fifteen rule and notify clinician

the fifteen-fifteen rule treats conscious hypoglycemia by giving fifteen grams of fast-acting carbohydrate and rechecking blood glucose in fifteen minutes. The phlebotomist also notifies the clinician, since persistent hypoglycemia requires medical evaluation. Option a is incorrect because intravenous insulin would worsen hypoglycemia by driving glucose even lower into a dangerous range. Insulin lowers blood glucose, so using it for a hypoglycemic event reverses the needed direction and risks seizure or coma in this patient. Option c is incorrect because continuing the draw quickly ignores the medical emergency and adds risk of fall during semi-conscious transition. The procedure must pause until glucose stabilizes, since proceeding with confused symptoms creates a safety hazard for both patient and worker. Option d is incorrect because plain water provides no glucose and does nothing to reverse the hypoglycemic event. Dismissing the patient without intervention abandons clinical respo

Correct Answer: Five or more minutes

a seizure lasting five or more minutes meets the definition of status epilepticus and requires immediate emergency response. Prolonged seizure activity raises the risk of brain injury, so the phlebotomist must escalate without further delay during this event. Option a is incorrect because treating any seizure as status epilepticus would overwhelm emergency services with self-limiting events. Many seizures resolve in under two minutes, so the threshold sits higher to focus emergency activation on prolonged events that demand intervention. Option b is incorrect because two minutes is shorter than the standard threshold and would activate emergency response prematurely for many self-limiting seizures. Using a lower cutoff would dilute the urgency signal, since most short seizures stop on their own without intervention. Option c is incorrect because three minutes still falls below the five-minute mark used in current emergency medicine guidelines. Setting the line earlier would generate fa

Correct Answer: Within eight hours

an employer must notify OSHA within eight hours of a workplace fatality under federal recordkeeping rules. Inpatient hospitalizations, amputations, and eye losses carry a different twenty-four hour notification deadline, and recording on Form 300 follows separately. Option a is incorrect because a one-hour notification window is shorter than federal law actually requires for workplace fatalities. The standard sets eight hours as the binding deadline, giving employers time to confirm circumstances during chaotic post-event hours. Option b is incorrect because twenty-four hours applies to in-patient hospitalizations, amputations, or eye losses rather than fatalities. Confusing the two timelines is a common test trap, but fatalities specifically require the faster eight-hour window to OSHA after the event. Option d is incorrect because seven days exceeds the federal deadline by an enormous margin and would expose the employer to penalty risk. The eight-hour fatality window exists precisel